10 questions · 100 marks · Model answers with cited sources, key points, exam tips & extra-marks content.
a) Draw a well labelled diagram of brachial plexus. [5] b) Enumerate the different routes of brachial plexus block. What are the possible complications of interscalene block? [1+4]
Organisation — "Randy Travis Drinks Cold Beer" (Roots → Trunks → Divisions → Cords → Branches)
The brachial plexus provides the entire cutaneous and muscular innervation of the upper limb (except trapezius and a strip of medial arm skin). It is formed from the ventral rami of C5–T1.
- Roots (C5–T1): lie between anterior and middle scalene muscles (interscalene groove).
- Trunks: Upper (C5+C6), Middle (C7), Lower (C8+T1) — cross the posterior triangle / cross the first rib.
- Divisions: each trunk splits into an anterior and posterior division (behind the clavicle).
- Cords (named by relation to the axillary artery): Lateral (ant. divisions of upper+middle trunk, C5–7), Posterior (all 3 posterior divisions, C5–T1), Medial (ant. division of lower trunk, C8–T1).
- Terminal branches: musculocutaneous, axillary, radial, median, ulnar.
Branches at each level
- From roots: dorsal scapular nerve (C5), long thoracic nerve (C5–7), branches to scalenes & longus colli, and a contribution to the phrenic nerve.
- From trunks (upper trunk only): suprascapular nerve and nerve to subclavius.
- Lateral cord: lateral pectoral nerve, musculocutaneous nerve, lateral root of median nerve.
- Medial cord: medial pectoral nerve, medial root of median nerve, medial cutaneous nerve of arm, medial cutaneous nerve of forearm, and the ulnar nerve.
- Posterior cord ("ULTRA"): Upper subscapular, Lower subscapular, Thoracodorsal (nerve to latissimus dorsi), Radial, Axillary.
Approaches (level of block determines coverage)
- Interscalene (at roots/trunks) — for shoulder and proximal humerus surgery; spares the ulnar (inferior trunk, C8–T1) — "ulnar sparing".
- Supraclavicular (at trunks/divisions) — the "spinal of the arm"; most complete, dense block for the whole upper limb below the shoulder.
- Infraclavicular (at cords) — for elbow, forearm and hand; good for catheter placement.
- Axillary (at terminal branches) — for forearm and hand; safest (no risk of pneumothorax), but misses the musculocutaneous nerve (must be blocked separately).
Techniques: landmark/paraesthesia (Winnie), peripheral nerve stimulator, and ultrasound-guided (roots/trunks appear as the hypoechoic "bunch of grapes / traffic-light sign" in the interscalene groove between the scalenes).
Complications of interscalene block
- Phrenic nerve palsy → ipsilateral hemidiaphragmatic paresis — virtually 100%; avoid in significant respiratory compromise.
- Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) from stellate ganglion spread.
- Recurrent laryngeal nerve block → hoarseness.
- Vertebral artery injection → immediate seizures / LA systemic toxicity (LAST).
- Inadvertent neuraxial spread — epidural, subarachnoid (total spinal) via a dural cuff.
- Pneumothorax (lower with interscalene than supraclavicular), nerve injury, haematoma, infection.
- C5–T1; 5 roots, 3 trunks, 6 divisions, 3 cords, 5 terminal branches.
- Interscalene = shoulder surgery; spares ulnar (C8–T1); supraclavicular = most complete; axillary spares musculocutaneous.
- Interscalene block causes near-100% phrenic (hemidiaphragm) palsy — contraindicated in severe respiratory disease / contralateral phrenic palsy.
- Vertebral artery injection → instant seizure; aspirate and inject in small increments under ultrasound.
- Choosing interscalene for hand surgery — it commonly spares the ulnar territory.
- Performing interscalene block in a patient who cannot tolerate a 25% fall in FVC (phrenic palsy).
- Forgetting to block the musculocutaneous nerve separately with an axillary approach.
Draw the plexus as five neat vertical columns (Roots–Trunks–Divisions–Cords–Branches) and label C5–T1; a clear diagram scores the full 5 marks. For Part B, always lead with the near-100% phrenic palsy as the headline complication of interscalene block.
- Dr. Tanya Chawla — DNB December 2025 Paper I notes (brachial plexus & BPB).
- Miller's Anesthesia, 9th Ed — Peripheral Nerve Blocks (upper extremity).
- Barash, Clinical Anesthesia, 8th Ed — Peripheral Nerve Blockade.
- Morgan & Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology, 6th Ed — Peripheral Nerve Blocks.
- Ultrasound landmark: at the level of the cricoid (C6), the C5, C6, C7 roots line up vertically between anterior and middle scalene — the "traffic-light"/"stoplight" sign; the plexus is superficial and lateral to the carotid and internal jugular vein.
- Diaphragm-sparing alternatives for shoulder surgery in respiratory-compromised patients: superior trunk block, low-volume interscalene, or a combined suprascapular + axillary nerve block.
- LAST readiness: keep 20% lipid emulsion (Intralipid) available; the interscalene region's rich vascularity (vertebral artery) makes intravascular injection and seizures a real risk.
a) How is carbon dioxide transported in the blood? [5] b) What is Haldane effect? How is it related to the Bohr effect? [3+2]
CO₂ produced by tissue metabolism (~200 mL/min) is carried to the lungs in three forms:
1. As bicarbonate — ~70% (major form)
- CO₂ + H₂O ⇌ H₂CO₃ ⇌ H⁺ + HCO₃⁻; the reaction is accelerated ~13,000× by carbonic anhydrase inside the red cell.
- HCO₃⁻ diffuses out of the RBC in exchange for Cl⁻ — the chloride shift (Hamburger phenomenon); H⁺ is buffered by haemoglobin.
2. As carbamino compounds — ~23%
- CO₂ binds to the terminal amine groups of the globin chains of haemoglobin (carbaminohaemoglobin), and to plasma proteins.
- Deoxygenated Hb carries CO₂ far better than oxygenated Hb — the basis of the Haldane effect.
3. Dissolved in plasma — ~7%
- Governed by Henry's law (CO₂ is ~20× more soluble than O₂); this fraction determines the PaCO₂.
The CO₂ dissociation curve is more linear and steeper than the O₂ curve, so large amounts of CO₂ are carried over the physiological range.
Haldane effect
- The effect of oxygenation on the affinity of Hb for CO₂.
- In the lungs: O₂ loading ↓ the affinity of Hb for CO₂ → CO₂ is unloaded and expired.
- In the tissues: deoxygenation ↑ CO₂-carrying capacity, so deoxy-Hb picks up more CO₂. (HbO₂ + CO₂ ⇌ HbCO₂ + O₂).
Bohr effect
- The effect of CO₂ and H⁺ (pH) on the affinity of Hb for O₂.
- In the tissues: ↑CO₂ and ↑H⁺ ↓ the affinity of Hb for O₂ → the O₂ dissociation curve shifts right → O₂ unloading (enhanced delivery). Factors: ↑CO₂, ↑temperature, ↓pH, ↑2,3-DPG.
How they are related
They are reciprocal / complementary aspects of the same interaction between O₂, CO₂ and haemoglobin. The Bohr effect promotes O₂ release in the tissues (CO₂/H⁺ drive O₂ off Hb); the Haldane effect simultaneously allows that same deoxygenated Hb to pick up more CO₂. In the lungs the process reverses. Together they make gas exchange maximally efficient at both ends of the circulation.
- CO₂ transport: bicarbonate ~70%, carbamino ~23%, dissolved ~7%.
- Carbonic anhydrase (in RBC) + chloride shift (Hamburger) drive bicarbonate transport.
- Bohr = CO₂/H⁺ affect Hb–O₂ affinity (helps O₂ unloading in tissue). Haldane = O₂ affects Hb–CO₂ affinity (helps CO₂ loading in tissue / unloading in lung).
- Swapping the two effects — remember: Bohr acts on O₂ binding; Haldane acts on CO₂ binding.
- Forgetting the chloride shift / carbonic anhydrase step in the bicarbonate mechanism.
Give the three percentages (70/23/7) and name carbonic anhydrase + the chloride (Hamburger) shift for full marks. For part B, a one-line "they are reciprocal aspects of the same O₂–CO₂–Hb interaction" statement clinches the "how are they related" mark.
- Dr. Tanya Chawla — DNB December 2025 Paper I notes (CO₂ transport; Haldane & Bohr).
- Miller's Anesthesia, 9th Ed — Respiratory Physiology.
- West's Respiratory Physiology, 11th Ed — Gas transport by the blood.
- Barash, Clinical Anesthesia, 8th Ed — Respiratory Physiology.
- Haldane effect quantitatively accounts for roughly half of the CO₂ exchanged between tissues and lungs — it effectively doubles CO₂ uptake for a given change in PCO₂.
- Double Haldane effect in the placenta: fetal Hb loses CO₂ as it takes up O₂, while maternal Hb takes up CO₂ as it releases O₂ — aiding feto-maternal gas exchange.
- P50 (PO₂ at 50% saturation) = 26.7 mmHg for adult HbA; a right shift (Bohr, ↑temp, ↑2,3-DPG) raises P50, a left shift (HbF, CO, alkalosis, hypothermia) lowers it.
a) What is diffusion capacity of lung? What are the factors which affect the diffusing capacity? [2+3] b) What are the factors which influence respiratory function during anaesthesia? [5]
Definition
The diffusing capacity of the lung (DLCO) is the ability of a gas to transfer from the alveoli to the pulmonary capillary blood per unit driving pressure. It reflects the function of the alveolar–capillary membrane. Carbon monoxide is used to measure it (single-breath DLCO) because it is diffusion-limited and avidly bound by Hb.
Diffusion is governed by Fick's law: V̇gas = [A × D × (P₁ − P₂)] / T, where A = surface area, T = membrane thickness, (P₁ − P₂) = partial-pressure gradient, and D = diffusion coefficient (∝ gas solubility ÷ √molecular weight — Graham's law).
Factors affecting diffusing capacity
- Surface area — ↓ in emphysema, lung resection, pneumonectomy; ↑ with exercise.
- Membrane thickness — ↑ thickness ↓ DLCO: pulmonary fibrosis, pulmonary oedema, ARDS.
- Partial-pressure gradient (P₁ − P₂) — a larger alveolar–capillary gradient increases diffusion (affected by alveolar O₂ tension/FiO₂).
- Haemoglobin — ↑ in polycythaemia; ↓ in anaemia (DLCO is corrected for Hb).
- Pulmonary blood flow / capillary volume — ↑ with exercise; ↓ in pulmonary embolism.
- V/Q matching, age, smoking, body position — poor V/Q matching, ageing and smoking reduce DLCO.
↓ DLCO: emphysema, pulmonary fibrosis, anaemia, pulmonary embolism. ↑ DLCO: polycythaemia, exercise, left-to-right shunt, alveolar haemorrhage, supine position.
Patient factors
- Extremes of age; obesity (↓ FRC, ↑ atelectasis).
- Pre-existing lung disease (V/Q mismatch), smoking (↑ secretions, ↓ ciliary clearance).
- Cardiac disease (pulmonary oedema); neuromuscular disease (weak respiratory muscles).
Surgical factors
- Site of surgery — upper abdominal & thoracic surgery reduce FRC most.
- Position — supine ↓ FRC; Trendelenburg ↓↓ further; lateral → V/Q mismatch.
- Duration (prolonged → atelectasis), pain (splinting), and laparoscopy/pneumoperitoneum (↑ intra-abdominal pressure, ↓ compliance).
Anaesthesia factors (general anaesthesia)
- CNS depression of respiratory drive; loss of upper-airway tone.
- Muscle relaxants and volatile agents (blunt hypoxic/hypercarbic drive, cause atelectasis).
- High FiO₂ → absorption atelectasis; mechanical ventilation → barotrauma / volutrauma.
- Loss of FRC (~15–20%) on induction is the central mechanism of intra-operative hypoxaemia.
- DLCO = alveolar–capillary membrane function; measured with CO; governed by Fick's law.
- DLCO ↓ with ↓surface area, ↑thickness, ↓Hb, ↓pulmonary blood flow.
- Anaesthesia reduces FRC → atelectasis; upper abdominal/thoracic surgery + supine/Trendelenburg position worsen it; high FiO₂ causes absorption atelectasis.
- Confusing DLCO (a membrane/diffusion measure) with spirometric volumes.
- Forgetting to correct DLCO for haemoglobin — anaemia falsely lowers it.
- Omitting position and FRC as the key intra-operative respiratory factors.
Write Fick's law with all four variables for Part A. For Part B, structure the answer as Patient / Surgical / Anaesthetic factors — a classified answer scores far better than a random list, and always mention the fall in FRC.
- Dr. Tanya Chawla — DNB December 2025 Paper I notes (DLCO; respiratory function under anaesthesia).
- West's Respiratory Physiology, 11th Ed — Diffusion.
- Miller's Anesthesia, 9th Ed — Respiratory Physiology & effects of anaesthesia.
- Nunn's Applied Respiratory Physiology, 8th Ed.
- Diffusion- vs perfusion-limited gases: CO is diffusion-limited (never equilibrates), while O₂ and N₂O are normally perfusion-limited (equilibrate along the capillary). O₂ becomes diffusion-limited in exercise at altitude or with a thickened membrane.
- Atelectasis on induction forms within minutes in dependent lung; countered with PEEP, recruitment manoeuvres, avoiding 100% O₂ at induction/emergence, and CPAP.
- DM and Vc: 1/DLCO = 1/DM + 1/(θ·Vc) — DLCO has a membrane component (DM) and a blood/haemoglobin component (θ·Vc), explaining why anaemia and pulmonary vascular disease alter it.
a) What are the anaesthetic techniques using opioids? List the different routes of applications of opioids. [3+3] b) What are the factors which affect the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of opioids? [4]
Opioids are widely used for analgesia and to blunt the surgical stress response. Anaesthetic techniques using opioids:
Anaesthetic techniques
- Opioid-based general anaesthesia — high-dose opioid technique (e.g. fentanyl/sufentanil) for cardiac and major surgery to preserve haemodynamic stability.
- Balanced anaesthesia (most common) — opioid + inhalational/IV agent + muscle relaxant.
- Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA / TCI) — e.g. propofol + remifentanil.
- Regional analgesia with opioid adjuncts — peripheral nerve blocks and neuraxial (epidural/intrathecal) opioids.
- Post-operative analgesia techniques — PCA, neuraxial opioid, multimodal regimens.
Routes of application
- Intravenous — most rapid, titratable onset (PCA, infusion).
- Intramuscular / subcutaneous — variable, unpredictable absorption.
- Oral — significant first-pass metabolism.
- Transdermal (fentanyl, buprenorphine patch) and transmucosal / intranasal (fentanyl).
- Neuraxial — epidural and intrathecal.
Pharmacokinetic factors
- Absorption — route-dependent (IV fastest; IM/SC variable; oral limited by first-pass).
- Distribution — lipid solubility (more lipophilic → faster CNS penetration and onset, e.g. fentanyl); protein binding (only free drug is active); volume of distribution (large Vd → prolonged/context-sensitive effect).
- Metabolism — mostly hepatic; oral opioids undergo first-pass; morphine → glucuronidation, fentanyl → CYP3A4.
- Elimination — renal excretion of active metabolites; morphine-6-glucuronide accumulates in renal failure → toxicity (respiratory depression).
Pharmacodynamic factors
- Age — elderly: ↑ sensitivity, ↓ clearance; neonates: immature metabolism/BBB.
- Comorbidities — hepatic/renal disease (accumulation); CNS disease (↑ sensitivity); respiratory disease (↑ risk of respiratory depression).
- Tolerance — chronic opioid use ↓ response, needs higher doses.
- Drug interactions — additive respiratory depression with sedatives/benzodiazepines.
- Acid–base status — acidosis increases the ionised/unionised balance and CNS penetration.
- Techniques: opioid-based GA, balanced anaesthesia, TIVA/TCI, regional adjunct, post-op analgesia.
- Routes: IV, IM/SC, oral, transdermal, transmucosal/intranasal, neuraxial.
- Renal failure → M6G accumulation → morphine toxicity; use fentanyl-type opioids instead.
- Context-sensitive half-time (not elimination t½) predicts recovery after infusion — remifentanil's is ~3–4 min regardless of duration.
- Giving morphine in renal failure — accumulation of active M6G causes delayed respiratory depression.
- Quoting elimination half-life to predict recovery after an infusion instead of context-sensitive half-time.
- Ignoring additive respiratory depression when opioids are combined with benzodiazepines.
Classify Part A cleanly (techniques vs routes). In Part B, structure as PK (ADME) then PD, and name the M6G/renal-failure interaction and context-sensitive half-time — these are the discriminating high-yield points.
- Dr. Tanya Chawla — DNB December 2025 Paper I notes (opioid techniques, routes, PK/PD).
- Miller's Anesthesia, 9th Ed — Opioids.
- Stoelting's Pharmacology & Physiology in Anesthetic Practice, 5th Ed — Opioid agonists.
- Morgan & Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology, 6th Ed — Analgesic agents.
- Context-sensitive half-time is the concept that distinguishes remifentanil (organ-independent esterase metabolism, ~3–4 min) from fentanyl (rises steeply with infusion duration due to peripheral redistribution).
- Genetic variation: CYP2D6 poor metabolisers get little analgesia from codeine/tramadol (prodrugs); ultra-rapid metabolisers risk toxicity.
- Neuraxial opioid spread — lipophilic (fentanyl) act segmentally with less rostral spread; hydrophilic (morphine) spread cephalad in CSF → risk of delayed respiratory depression at 6–12 h.
a) Define cardiac output. What are the factors affecting cardiac output? [1+4] b) Write briefly about the non-invasive methods of cardiac output measurement. [5]
Definition
Cardiac output (CO) is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute. CO = Heart Rate × Stroke Volume; normal ≈ 5 L/min (cardiac index 2.5–4 L/min/m²).
Factors affecting CO
- Heart rate — up to a point ↑HR ↑CO, but excessive tachycardia ↓ diastolic filling → ↓CO.
- Preload (Frank–Starling) — hypovolaemia/blood loss ↓ preload → ↓CO.
- Contractility — ↑ by sympathetic stimulation/inotropes; ↓ in ischaemia, cardiomyopathy, volatile agents.
- Afterload — ↑ afterload (↑SVR, aortic stenosis) → ↓CO.
- Rhythm — loss of atrial kick (AF) ↓CO.
- Perioperative modifiers — positive-pressure ventilation & PEEP (↓ venous return), pneumoperitoneum (↑IAP → ↓VR, ↑afterload), position (Trendelenburg ↑VR; head-up ↓VR), anaesthetic depth/drugs (propofol & volatiles depress CO), and the surgical stress response (catecholamines ↑CO).
Non-invasive monitors trade some accuracy/precision for fewer complications; useful to guide fluids, inotropes and vasoactive drugs.
- Partial CO₂ rebreathing (NICO) — applies the indirect (modified) Fick principle using CO₂ elimination; a disposable rebreathing loop with an infrared CO₂ sensor and pneumotachometer in the ventilator circuit. Needs an intubated, ventilated patient.
- Thoracic electrical bioimpedance (TEB) — a low-amplitude high-frequency current across the thorax; beat-to-beat changes in thoracic impedance track aortic blood flow → SV/CO.
- Bioreactance — measures the phase shift (time delay) of an applied current caused by pulsatile aortic flow; less susceptible to noise than bioimpedance; gives SV, CO, CI.
- Suprasternal / ultrasonic Doppler (USCOM) — a probe placed suprasternally measures aortic blood-flow velocity; CO = velocity–time integral × aortic cross-sectional area. Portable, but operator/position dependent.
- Photoplethysmography / Modelflow (finger-cuff, e.g. ClearSight/Nexfin) — completely non-invasive continuous pulse-contour/pulse-pressure analysis.
- Transthoracic echocardiography — LVOT VTI × LVOT area × HR gives CO; non-invasive and increasingly used at the bedside.
- CO = HR × SV; SV depends on preload, afterload, contractility (+ rhythm).
- NICO uses the indirect Fick (CO₂) principle; bioreactance uses phase shift; USCOM uses Doppler velocity × area.
- Non-invasive = fewer complications but lower precision/step-response than thermodilution (the gold standard remains the PAC/thermodilution).
- Defining CO as stroke volume alone — it is HR × SV per minute.
- Calling oesophageal Doppler or pulse-contour arterial systems "non-invasive" — they are minimally invasive.
- Forgetting that excessive tachycardia lowers CO by reducing diastolic filling.
Anchor Part A on CO = HR × SV and the four SV determinants (preload, afterload, contractility, rhythm). In Part B, state the physical principle behind each device (Fick / impedance / bioreactance / Doppler / pulse contour) — that is what earns marks, not just the device name.
- Dr. Tanya Chawla — DNB December 2025 Paper I notes (cardiac output & non-invasive monitoring).
- Miller's Anesthesia, 9th Ed — Cardiovascular Monitoring.
- Barash, Clinical Anesthesia, 8th Ed — Hemodynamic Monitoring.
- Morgan & Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology, 6th Ed — Cardiovascular monitoring.
- Gold standard: intermittent/continuous thermodilution via the pulmonary artery catheter; the indicator-dilution area under the curve (Stewart–Hamilton equation) gives CO — invasive methods remain the reference against which non-invasive devices are validated.
- Fick's original method: CO = VO₂ / (CaO₂ − CvO₂) — the true reference; NICO applies this indirectly using CO₂.
- Dynamic variables from these monitors (SVV, PPV) predict fluid responsiveness better than static CVP in ventilated patients.
a) What are the unique physical properties of desflurane which require a special type of vaporiser? What are the factors which influence desflurane vaporiser output? [3+2] b) What are volatile anaesthetic reflectors? Where are they used? [5]
Physical properties that demand a special vaporiser
- Boiling point 22.8 °C — close to room temperature; it would boil intermittently in a conventional vaporiser, causing wild fluctuations in output.
- High saturated vapour pressure ≈ 669 mmHg (88.5 kPa) at 20 °C — near atmospheric; a variable-bypass vaporiser would need impossibly high fresh-gas flow to dilute it and could deliver dangerously high concentrations.
- Low potency (MAC ≈ 6%) — large volumes of vapour must be delivered.
The Datex-Ohmeda Tec 6 solves this: it is electrically heated to 39 °C and pressurised (~2 atm), creating a stable vapour phase. It is a dual-circuit gas–vapour blender — fresh gas passes one circuit; pure desflurane vapour is injected via the other through a pressure-regulating valve, electronically matched (differential pressure transducer) so the set % is delivered. It is concentration-calibrated, agent-specific and heated/pressurised (unlike a variable-bypass vaporiser).
Factors influencing vaporiser output
- Fresh gas flow rate — at very low flows output rises, at very high flows it falls (incomplete saturation).
- Temperature — ↓ temperature ↓ SVP ↓ output (the Tec 6 negates this by heating).
- Ambient/barometric pressure (altitude) — the Tec 6 delivers a constant % v/v, so at altitude the delivered partial pressure falls and the dial must be increased to keep depth.
- Carrier gas composition — N₂O transiently alters output.
- Back pressure / pumping effect (intermittent PPV) and tilting (→ overdose) affect conventional vaporisers.
Definition & mechanism
Volatile anaesthetic reflectors are devices that conserve and recycle exhaled volatile agent, allowing inhalational agents to be delivered through a standard ICU ventilator without a circle system. A reflector containing an activated-carbon / zeolite matrix sits between the Y-piece and the endotracheal tube: on expiration it adsorbs the volatile agent, and on inspiration it releases it back to the patient — reducing anaesthetic consumption by ~90%. (Marketed as AnaConDa; MIRUS is a similar system.)
Where they are used
- ICU sedation — inhalational (isoflurane/sevoflurane) sedation as an alternative to propofol/dexmedetomidine.
- Difficult-to-sedate patients and status asthmaticus/refractory bronchospasm (bronchodilator effect).
- Where rapid, titratable sedation and fast wake-up are wanted.
- Advantages: stable, rapidly titratable sedation, reduced drug consumption/cost. Disadvantages: added dead space (↑ CO₂ retention risk), need for scavenging/special equipment. Avoid in small children and in hypercapnia.
- Desflurane: BP 22.8 °C, SVP ~669 mmHg, low potency → needs the heated, pressurised, dual-circuit Tec 6.
- Tec 6 delivers constant % v/v → at altitude increase the dial to maintain partial pressure/depth.
- Reflectors (AnaConDa) adsorb volatile on expiration, release on inspiration → ICU inhalational sedation; add dead space (CO₂ retention).
- Saying the Tec 6 works by variable bypass — it is a dual-circuit gas–vapour blender, not a bypass vaporiser.
- Forgetting the altitude effect: the Tec 6 maintains % v/v, not partial pressure.
- Overlooking the added dead space / CO₂ retention of a reflector, especially in children.
The three "magic numbers" for desflurane — BP 22.8 °C, SVP ~669 mmHg, MAC ~6% — plus "heated to 39 °C, pressurised" secure Part A. For reflectors, name AnaConDa and the adsorb-on-expiration/release-on-inspiration mechanism.
- Dr. Tanya Chawla — DNB December 2025 Paper I notes (desflurane/Tec 6; volatile reflectors).
- Miller's Anesthesia, 9th Ed — Inhaled Anesthetic Delivery Systems.
- Barash, Clinical Anesthesia, 8th Ed — Anesthesia Delivery System (vaporizers).
- Dorsch & Dorsch, Understanding Anesthesia Equipment, 5th Ed — Vaporizers.
- Why not a variable-bypass vaporiser: with SVP near atmospheric, splitting ratios become extreme and unstable; a small temperature change would swing output enormously — hence the heated, pressurised, electronic measured-flow design.
- Desflurane + dry CO₂ absorbent (especially baralyme) can generate carbon monoxide; use fresh, hydrated absorbent.
- AnaConDa sizes: 100 mL and 50 mL (ACD-S, less dead space) reflectors; agent is delivered by a syringe pump and monitored with a gas analyser.
a) Define cerebral perfusion pressure. Write briefly about Cushing's triad of ICP. [2+3] b) Describe the blood supply of spinal cord. [5]
Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)
- CPP is the pressure gradient driving cerebral blood flow: CPP = MAP − ICP (use CVP if it exceeds ICP; = MAP − ICP or CVP, whichever is higher).
- Normal CPP ≈ 60–100 mmHg; normal ICP 10–15 mmHg.
- CPP < 50 mmHg → cerebral ischaemia. Because ↑ICP or ↓MAP each lower CPP, neuroprotection = maintain MAP and lower ICP.
- Cerebral autoregulation keeps CBF constant over MAP ~50–150 mmHg; it is lost in injured brain, making CBF pressure-passive.
Cushing's triad (Cushing reflex)
A late sign of raised ICP, indicating impending/actual brain herniation. The triad is:
- Hypertension (widened pulse pressure)
- Bradycardia
- Irregular respiration (e.g. Cheyne–Stokes)
Mechanism: ↑ICP → ↓CPP → brainstem ischaemia → sympathetic surge (hypertension to restore perfusion) → the resulting hypertension triggers a baroreceptor-mediated reflex vagal bradycardia; brainstem compression disrupts respiration. It mandates urgent intervention to lower ICP.
Arterial supply
- Single anterior spinal artery — formed from both vertebral arteries; runs in the anterior median fissure; supplies the anterior two-thirds of the cord (motor tracts, spinothalamic tracts).
- Paired posterior spinal arteries — supply the posterior one-third (dorsal columns).
- Radicular (segmental) arteries reinforce these. The largest is the artery of Adamkiewicz (arteria radicularis magna), usually arising on the left between T9–L2; it supplies the lower two-thirds of the cord / lumbar enlargement — critical in thoraco-abdominal aortic surgery.
Anterior spinal artery syndrome (watershed T4–T8 region most vulnerable) → motor paralysis and loss of pain & temperature below the lesion, with preserved proprioception/vibration (dorsal columns spared).
Venous drainage
- Anterior and posterior spinal veins drain into the internal vertebral venous plexus (Batson's plexus), which is valveless → bidirectional flow.
- It communicates with azygos, caval and pelvic venous systems — a route for the spread of infection and tumour (e.g. prostate) to the vertebrae/CNS.
- CPP = MAP − ICP; normal 60–100 mmHg; <50 → ischaemia. Maintain MAP, lower ICP.
- Cushing's triad = hypertension + bradycardia + irregular respiration = late sign of ↑ICP / herniation.
- 1 anterior spinal artery (anterior ⅔) + 2 posterior spinal arteries (posterior ⅓); artery of Adamkiewicz T9–L2.
- Batson's plexus is valveless → bidirectional spread.
- Writing CPP = MAP + ICP, or forgetting to use CVP when it exceeds ICP.
- Reversing the triad — it is HYPERtension with BRADYcardia (not tachycardia).
- Forgetting that ASA syndrome spares the dorsal columns (proprioception/vibration intact).
Write the CPP formula and the <50 mmHg ischaemia threshold. Draw Cushing's triad as a small triangle (HTN–bradycardia–irregular respiration) and label it a "late sign". For Part B, the artery of Adamkiewicz and its T9–L2 origin is the high-yield clinical point.
- Dr. Tanya Chawla — DNB December 2025 Paper I notes (CPP, Cushing's triad, spinal cord blood supply).
- Miller's Anesthesia, 9th Ed — Neuroanaesthesia; Cerebral physiology.
- Barash, Clinical Anesthesia, 8th Ed — Anesthesia for Neurosurgery.
- Morgan & Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology, 6th Ed — Neurophysiology & Anesthesia.
- Monro–Kellie doctrine: the cranium holds a fixed volume of brain + blood + CSF; a rise in one must be offset by a fall in another, or ICP rises steeply once compensation is exhausted.
- Spinal cord perfusion pressure = MAP − CSF (or spinal) pressure — relevant to cord protection (MAP augmentation + CSF drainage) during thoraco-abdominal aortic aneurysm repair.
- Target CPP in traumatic brain injury is generally 60–70 mmHg (BTF) — avoid aggressive CPP >70 with fluids/pressors (ARDS risk).
a) What is p-value? How do you interpret it? [2+3] b) What do you understand by odds ratio? When is it used? [5]
Definition
The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result at least as extreme as the observed one, purely by chance, assuming the null hypothesis (H₀) is true. It quantifies how likely the observed difference is a chance finding.
Interpretation
- p ≤ 0.05 → statistically significant — the null hypothesis is rejected; the difference is unlikely to be due to chance alone (at the conventional α = 0.05).
- p > 0.05 → not statistically significant — insufficient evidence to reject H₀ (we do not "prove" H₀).
- 0.05 is the significance level (α) = the accepted probability of a Type I error (falsely rejecting a true null). In a two-tailed test each tail carries α/2 = 0.025.
- A p-value indicates statistical significance, not clinical significance or effect size, and depends heavily on sample size.
Type I error (α) = rejecting a true null (false positive); Type II error (β) = accepting a false null (false negative); power = 1 − β.
Definition & formula
The odds ratio is a measure of association that compares the odds of an event (disease) in an exposed group with the odds in an unexposed group. For a 2×2 table with cells a, b, c, d: OR = (a/b) ÷ (c/d) = ad / bc.
When it is used
- Primarily in case-control studies (where incidence/risk cannot be calculated directly).
- In logistic regression and cross-sectional studies.
- In cohort studies, although relative risk (RR) is generally preferred there.
Interpretation
- OR = 1 → no association.
- OR > 1 → exposure associated with higher odds of disease.
- OR < 1 → protective association.
Example: smokers 80 lung-cancer / 20 not; non-smokers 40 / 60. OR = (80×60)/(20×40) = 6 → smokers have six times the odds of lung cancer.
- p-value = probability the observed difference is due to chance if H₀ is true; <0.05 = significant.
- α = Type I error (false positive); β = Type II error (false negative); power = 1 − β.
- OR = ad/bc; case-control → OR, cohort/RCT → RR; when disease is rare (<10%), OR ≈ RR.
- Saying p-value is the probability that H₀ is true — it is the probability of the data given H₀.
- Equating statistical significance with clinical importance (large samples make trivial differences "significant").
- Using OR when RR can be calculated (cohort/RCT) — quote RR there.
Define p-value precisely ("assuming the null hypothesis is true"), link 0.05 to the Type I error rate, and give the OR = ad/bc formula with a worked example. Add the pearl "rare disease → OR ≈ RR" for the extra mark.
- Dr. Tanya Chawla — DNB December 2025 Paper I notes (p-value, odds ratio).
- Miller's Anesthesia, 9th Ed — Interpreting the Anesthesia Literature / Statistics.
- Park's Textbook of Preventive & Social Medicine — Epidemiological methods.
- Petrie & Sabin, Medical Statistics at a Glance.
- Confidence interval is more informative than a bare p-value: a 95% CI for an OR/RR that crosses 1 means the result is not statistically significant.
- Number needed to treat (NNT) = 1 / absolute risk reduction — translates statistical results into clinical usefulness.
- Multiple comparisons inflate the Type I error; correct with Bonferroni or similar adjustments.
a) What issues are involved in informed consent? What is informed refusal? [3+2] b) What are the ethical issues involved in end of life decision making? [5]
Informed consent — components/issues
Informed consent is the communication of the anaesthetic plan (pre-operative preparation, intra-operative management and post-operative care) in terms the patient understands, with risks, benefits and complications discussed and questions answered. Its essential elements:
- Decision-making capacity — ability to comprehend information, reason rationally and consistently, and express a preference.
- Voluntariness — free from coercion or undue influence.
- Disclosure — adequate information; the standard used may be the professional practice standard (what local physicians disclose), the reasonable person standard (what a reasonable patient would want to know), or the subjective standard (this particular patient's wishes).
- Comprehension of risks vs benefits and the basis of the recommendation.
Special situations: emergency (patient lacks capacity → act in best interest), minors (parental/guardian consent), and the pregnant patient (an autonomous competent woman's refusal is respected).
Informed refusal
The right of a competent, fully-informed patient to decline a recommended treatment or procedure — even if that refusal may be harmful or fatal. It requires the same elements as consent (capacity, adequate disclosure of the consequences of refusing + alternatives, voluntariness) and must be documented. Process: explain the situation → explain the risks of refusal → offer alternatives → confirm understanding → document.
End-of-life care involves decisions about withholding/withdrawing life-sustaining treatment, palliative care and respecting the patient's wishes, guided by the four ethical principles:
- Autonomy — the patient's right to decide (advance directives).
- Beneficence — act in the patient's best interest.
- Non-maleficence — do no harm / avoid futile burdensome treatment.
- Justice — fair allocation of limited resources.
Specific ethical issues
- Withholding vs withdrawing treatment — not starting vs stopping ongoing therapy; ethically and legally regarded as equivalent.
- Medical futility — treatment unlikely to benefit the patient.
- DNAR / DNR orders (withholding CPR).
- Advance directives / living wills and surrogate decision-making.
- Palliative (terminal) sedation — relieving refractory suffering (doctrine of double effect).
- Euthanasia vs assisted dying — active euthanasia is illegal in India; the Supreme Court has legalised passive euthanasia and advance directives (Aruna Shanbaug 2011; Common Cause 2018).
- Consent needs capacity, voluntariness, disclosure and comprehension; informed refusal = the mirror right to decline, competently and documented.
- Four principles: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, justice.
- Withholding = withdrawing (ethically equivalent); passive euthanasia & living wills are legal in India (Common Cause 2018).
- Treating a competent refusal as invalid because it seems unwise — capacity, not the "wisdom" of the choice, is what matters.
- Believing withdrawing treatment is ethically worse than withholding it — they are equivalent.
- Confusing legal passive euthanasia with active euthanasia (the latter remains illegal in India).
Frame everything around the four principles. Name the three disclosure standards for consent, and for end-of-life mention the withholding = withdrawing equivalence, the doctrine of double effect, and the Indian legal position (Common Cause 2018) — these are the marks-winning specifics.
- Dr. Tanya Chawla — DNB December 2025 Paper I notes (informed consent/refusal; end-of-life ethics).
- Miller's Anesthesia, 9th Ed — Ethical Aspects of Anesthesia Care.
- Beauchamp & Childress, Principles of Biomedical Ethics.
- Supreme Court of India — Common Cause v Union of India (2018); Aruna Shanbaug (2011).
- Doctrine of double effect: giving opioids/sedatives to relieve suffering is ethical even if it may hasten death, provided the intent is symptom relief, not to kill.
- Jehovah's Witness & blood: a classic informed-refusal scenario — a competent adult may refuse transfusion; document, explore alternatives (cell salvage, tranexamic acid), and respect the decision.
- Capacity is decision-specific and can fluctuate — assess it for the specific decision at the specific time, not as a global label.
a) Describe the events that result in nerve action potential. [5] b) Discuss about the mechanism of action of local anaesthetic agents. [5]
Resting membrane potential
≈ −70 mV, maintained by the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase (3 Na⁺ out : 2 K⁺ in) and the high resting K⁺ permeability (K⁺ leak channels). The membrane is polarised, with Na⁺ high outside and K⁺ high inside.
Sequence of the action potential
- Depolarisation to threshold (~ −55 mV): a stimulus opens some Na⁺ channels; once threshold is reached the response is all-or-none.
- Rapid depolarisation: voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open → rapid Na⁺ influx → membrane potential overshoots to about +30 mV.
- Repolarisation: Na⁺ channels inactivate and voltage-gated K⁺ channels open → K⁺ efflux returns the potential toward resting.
- Hyperpolarisation (after-potential): K⁺ channels close slowly → transient undershoot below resting.
- Restoration: the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase re-establishes the ionic gradients.
Refractory periods: absolute (Na⁺ channels inactivated — no AP possible) then relative. Conduction is continuous in unmyelinated fibres and saltatory (node-to-node) in myelinated fibres.
Structure & principle
LAs have a lipophilic aromatic ring — an intermediate ester/amide chain — and a hydrophilic tertiary amine. They act by disrupting ion-channel function in the neuronal membrane, blocking voltage-gated Na⁺ channels and preventing transmission of the action potential.
How they block the channel
- LAs are weak bases. The unionised (lipid-soluble) base crosses the nerve membrane; inside the axoplasm it re-ionises to the cationic (BH⁺) form, which is the active form and binds the inner pore of the voltage-gated Na⁺ channel (from the cytoplasmic side).
- This blocks Na⁺ influx → prevents/reduces depolarisation → ↓ amplitude and conduction of the action potential.
- LAs preferentially bind open/inactivated channels; rapidly firing fibres have more channels open → more block — the basis of use- (frequency-) dependent block.
Differential block
Smaller and myelinated fibres are blocked more readily than large and unmyelinated ones. Typical order of blockade: autonomic (B) → pain & temperature (C, Aδ) → touch/pressure → proprioception → motor (Aα) last. Recovery occurs in reverse.
- AP: resting −70 mV → threshold −55 mV → Na⁺ influx (depolarise, +30 mV) → K⁺ efflux (repolarise) → hyperpolarise → Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase restores gradients.
- LA = weak base; unionised form crosses the membrane, ionised (BH⁺) form blocks the Na⁺ channel from inside.
- Use-dependent block (prefers open/inactivated channels); differential block — autonomic/pain first, motor last.
- Saying the ionised form crosses the membrane — the unionised base crosses; the ionised cation blocks the channel.
- Forgetting that in infected/acidic tissue more drug is ionised → poor membrane penetration → LA "doesn't work".
- Reversing the differential block order (motor is blocked last, recovers first).
For Part A, quote the voltages (−70/−55/+30 mV) and name the channels. For Part B, the "unionised crosses, ionised blocks from inside" concept plus use-dependent and differential block earns the marks — and add the acidic-tissue pearl.
- Dr. Tanya Chawla — DNB December 2025 Paper I notes (nerve action potential; LA mechanism).
- Miller's Anesthesia, 9th Ed — Local Anesthetics.
- Stoelting's Pharmacology & Physiology in Anesthetic Practice, 5th Ed — Local Anesthetics.
- Guyton & Hall, Textbook of Medical Physiology — Membrane Potentials and Action Potentials.
- pKa determines onset: agents with a pKa closer to physiological pH have a greater unionised fraction and faster onset (e.g. lidocaine pKa 7.9 > bupivacaine 8.1). Lipid solubility → potency; protein binding → duration.
- Why LA fails in an abscess: the low tissue pH shifts drug to the ionised form, reducing membrane penetration — use a regional block proximal to the infected area instead.
- LA systemic toxicity (LAST): CNS (perioral tingling, seizures) then cardiovascular collapse; bupivacaine is the most cardiotoxic — treat with 20% lipid emulsion.